Showing posts with label Chemistry. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Chemistry. Show all posts

Tuesday, May 24, 2011

MP PET 2011 Answer Key & Solution (Exam held on 22 May)[published]

MP PET 2011 Answer Key & Solution (Exam held on 22 May 2011)

Madhya Pradesh Pre Engineering Test is
conducted by Professional Examination Board, Madhya Pradesh, Bhopal
for admission to BE/BArch/BTech (Agril Engg) and BTech (Dairy Tech)
courses in : (I) Government Engineering Colleges; (ii) Private Engineering
Colleges;

i will upload the the both solution paper 1 and paper 2...

download below attachment...


click below link to get pet 2011 may 22 pet entrance exam solutions..


http://a2zinfo.info.ru.com/showthread.php?tid=32

Monday, May 16, 2011

Free PMT Mock Practice Test Physics Chemistry Biology Botany Zoology


Free PMT Mock Practice  Test
Free Online Practice Exams and Mock Tests for Medical entrance Exam
Free PMT Online Practice Test
PMT mock test free exam
Test Containing Physics Chemistry Biology Botany Zoology

Zoology

1. Which of the following is the most, sparsely populated state of India?
(a) Manipur
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. (d)
2. The interferons are:
(a) Antiviral proteins
(b) Antibiotic proteins
(c) Antigen proteins
(d) Antibacterial particle
Ans. (a)
3. Which of the following organism is useful in the preparation of Roquefort cheese?
(a) Mucor
(b) Rhizopus
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Penicillium
Ans. (d)
4. Who coined the term antibiotics?
(a) Darwin
(b) Woodruff
(c) Flemming
(d) Selman Waksman
Ans. (d)
5. A complex polysaccharide produced from sucrose by the bacterium Leuconostoc
Mesenteries is
(a) Chitin
(b) Starch
(c) Cellulose
(d) Dextrin
Ans. (d)
6. Which of the following Il type is capable of giving rise to other cell types in sponges?
(a) Archaeocytes
(b) Neocytes
(c) Collenocytés
(d) Pinacocytes
Ans. (a)
7. Haemocyanin is found in:
(a) Annelida
(b) Protozoa
(c) Echinodermata
(d) Mollusca
Ans. (d)
8. Flat worms and ribbon worms have?:
(a) Bilateral symmetry
(b) Organ level of organization
(c) Mesoderm
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
9. Number of essential amino acids in a man is:
(a) 7
(b) 14
(c) 21
(d) 28
Ans. (a)
10. Binomial nomenclature system was proposed by:
(a) Tippo
(b) Linnaeus
(c) Whittaker
(d) Hutchinson
Ans. (b)
11. Correct pair of sanctuary and protected wild animal is:
(a) Sunder ban-Rhino
(b) Kaziranga-Musk deer
(c) Gir-Lion
(d) Corbett-White lion
Ans. (c)
12. Tube feet is a characteristic feature of:
(a) Cray fish
(b) Starfish
(c) Cuttle fish
(d) Jelly fish
Ans. (b)
13. Two examples in which the nitrogenous wastes are excreted from body in the form of uric acid are:
(a) Mammals and mollusca
(b) Frog and fish
(c) Insect and earthworm
(d) Birds and lizards
Ans. (d)
14. Mammary glands without teats are present in:
(a) Prototheria
(b) Metatheria
(c) Eutheria
(d) Agnetha
Ans. (a)
15. During blood clotting, the platelets release:
(a) Thrombin
(b) Prothrombin
(c) Fibrin
(d) Thrombokinase
Ans. (d)
16. In human zygote, the male sex is determined by:
(a) Strength of male chromosome
(b) Father is stronger than mother
(c) Required composition of chromosomes
(d) Mothers as it get good nutrition
Ans. (c)
17. The component of pectoral girdle is
(a) Acetabulum
(b) Sternum
(c) Ilium
(d) Glenoid cavity
Ans. (d)
18. Micturition reflex is related to
(a) Ovulation
(c) Fertilization
(b) Copulation
(d) Urination
Ans. (d)
19. Gonadotrophins are secreted from:
(a) Gonads
(b) Anterior pituitary
(c) Posterior pituitary
(d) Thyroid
Ans. (b)
20. Which of the following gas make most stable product with hemoglobin?
(a) O2
(b) GO2
(c) CO
(d) SO2
Ans. (c)
21. Correct statement with reference to a test tube baby is:
(a) The fertilized egg is placed in the womb of the mother where the gastrula period is completed
(b) Unfertilized egg is placed in the womb and allowed to grow parthenogenetically
(c) A prematurely born baby is reared in an incubator
(d) Fertilized egg is taken out and grown in a large test tube
Ans. (a)
22. Which of the following is not correct about antibiotics?
(a) The term was given by Waksman in 1942
(b) Antibiotics are produced by microorganisms
(c) Antibiotics can induce allergy
(d) Antibiotics are capable of curing all the diseases
Ans. (d)
23. Which of the following is the correct group’ of vestigial organs in man?
(a) Wisdom teeth, body hairs, nictitating membrane and vermiform appendix
(b) Appendix, coccyx, ear muscles and elbow joint
(c) Nictitating membrane, ear muscles, eyelids and coccyx
(d) Wisdom tooth, coccyx, body hair and ear muscles
Ans. (a)
24. Formation of primitive streak in the chick embryo is the first sign of:
(a) Notogenesis
(b) Gastrulation
(c) Mutagenesis
(d) Blastulation
Ans. (b)
25. Which of the following is a termination codon for the biosynthesis of protein?
(a) UAA
(b) UAG
(c) UGA
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)

Botany

26. The fertilization in which male gametes are carried through pollen tube is known as:
(a) Syngamy
(b) Porogamy
(c) Siphonogamy
(d) Chalazogamy
Ans. (c)
27. Which of the following theory gives the latest explanation for the closure of stomata?
(a) ABA theory
(b) Munch theory
(c) Starch glucose theory
(d) Active K transport theory
Ans. (a)
28. Loss of liquid water by Guttation occurs through:
(a) Hydathodes
(b) Stomata
(c) Cuticle
(d) Bark
Ans. (a)
29. Which of the following is the first compound that accepts carbon dioxide during dark phase of photosynthesis?
(a) NADP
(b) RuBP
(c) Ferridoxin
(d) Cytochrome
Ans. (b)
30. Oxygen which is liberated during photosynthesis comes from:
(a) CO2
(b) H2O
(c) Chlorophyll
(d) Phosphoglyceric acid
Ans. (b)
31. In C4 plants, the carbon dioxide fixation occurs in:
(a) Guard cells
(b) Spongy cells
(c) Palisade cells
(d) Bundle sheath cells
Ans. (d)
32. Ethyl alcohol is commercially manufactured from:
(a) Bajra
(b) Grapes
(c) Maize
(d) Sugarcane
Ans. (d)
33. Last electron acceptor in respiration is:
(a) O2
(b) H2
(c) CO2
(d) NADH
Ans. (a)
34. A hormone delaying senescence is:
(a) Auxin
(b) Cytokines
(c) Ethylene
(d) Gibberellin
Ans. (b)
35. Which of the following induces flowering in long day plants?
(a) Gibberellins
(c) Auxin
(b) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene
Ans. (a)
36. What name has been assigned to the genus produced by a cross between cabbage and radish?
(a) Secale
(b) Bursa pastoris
(c) Lysogenicophyll
(d) Raphanobrassica
Ans. (d)
37. Genetic counselors can identify heterozygous individuals by:
(a) Height of individuals
(b) Colour of individuals
(c) Screening procedures
(d) All of the above
Ans. (c)
38. The term heterosis was first coined by:
(a) McClintock
(b) Poweri
(c) Swami Nathan
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
39. Somatic hybridization is a technique of:
(a) Natural breeding
(b) Natural pollination
(c) Artificial pollination
(d) Somatic cells hybridization
Ans. (d)
40. Which of the following is initiation codon in eukaryotes?
(a) UAG
(b) UGA
(c) UAA
(d) AUG
Ans. (d)
41. Which of the following species are restricted to an area?
(a) Sibling species
(b) Endemic species
(c) Allopathic species
(d) Sympatric species
Ans. (b)
42. Biological concept of species is mainly based on:
(a) Reproductive isolation
(b) Morphological features only
(c) Methods of reproduction only
(d) Morphology and methods of reproduction
Ans. (a)
43. Which of the following supports a dense population of plankton and littoral vegetation?
(a) Oligotrophic
(b) Eutrophic
(c) Lithotrophic
(d) Ageroecotrophic
Ans. (b)
44. A man-made ecosystem is:
(a) Less in diversity
(b) More in diversity
(c) Man does not make ecosystem
(d) More stable than natural ecosystem
Ans. (a)
45. Crop rotation is used by farmers to increase:
(a) Soil fertility
(b) Community area
(c) Organic content of soil
(d) Nitrogenous content in the soil
Ans. (a)
46. Which of the following organism form the decomposers?
(a) Pteris
(b) Bacteria
(c) Saprophytic fungi
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (d)
47. Fly-ash is a/an:
(a) Insectivorous plant
(b) Light airbom particulate matter
(c) new name of orchid plant
(d) Causal organism of various diseases
Ans. (b)
48. Some effects of sulphur dioxide and its transformation products on plant include:
(a) Plasmolysis
(b) Golgi body destruction
(c) Protein dis-integration
(d) Chlorophyll destruction
Ans. (d)
49. Which of the following plant is used for the purification of water?
(a) Beggiata
(b) Chiorella
(d) Eichhornia
(c) Spirogyra
Ans. (d)
50. In the treatment of waste water discharge, which treatment stage involves biological treatment?
(a) Primary treatment
(b) Secondary treatment
(c) Tertiary treatment
(d) Reverse osmosis stage
Ans. (b)

Chemistry

51. A sample of oxygen gas is collected over water at 23°C at a pressure of 751 mm Hg (vapour pressure of water at 23°C is 21 mm Hg). The partial pressure of oxygen in the sample collected is:
(a) 730 mm
(b) 710 mm
(c) 751 mmHg
(d) 2l mmHg
Ans. (a)
52. Which chemical decreases the H+ ion concentration of an acetic acid solution?
(a) AgNO3
(b) NaCN
(c) Al2 (SO4)3
(d) NH4C1
Ans. (b)
53. 2.0 g of CH4 on combustion produce 25 kcal. Heat of combustion of CH4 would be:
(a) 200 kcal
(b) 400 kcal
(c) 500 kcal
(d) 600 kcal
Ans. (a)
54. Philosopher’s wool is:
(a) ZnCl2
(b) ZnS
(c) Zn (N03)2
(d) ZnO
Ans. (d)
55. Which one of the dissociation constant?
(a) CHCl2COOH
(b) CH2C1COOH
(c) CH3COOH
(d) CC13COOH
Ans. (c)
56. Soaps can be classified as:
(a) Esters
(b) Salts of fatty acids
(c) Alcohols
(d) Phenols
Ans. (b)
57. Acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde can be distinguished by:
(a) Schiff’s solution
(b) Fehling’s solution
(c) Tollen’s reagent
(d) Hydrogen cyanide
Ans. (b)
58. Butter is:
(a) Water dispersed in oil
(b) Fat dispersed in water
(c) Fat dispersed in milk
(d) Water dispersed in fat
Ans. (d)
59. Solder is:
(a) Pb + Sn
(b) Pb + Zn
(c) Sn + Fe
(d) Zn + Sn
Ans. (a)
60.Zeeman effect explains splitting of lines in:
(a) Magnetic field
(b) Electric field
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
61. Isotonic solutions have:
(a) Same vapour pressure
(b) Same temperature
(c) Same osmotic pressure
(d) Same freezing point
Ans. (c)
62. By passing a beam of light through a colloidal solution, it is
(a) Refracted
(b) Absorbed
(c) Scattered
(d) Reflected
Ans. (c)
63. Evaporation of water is:
(a) Endothermic change
(b) Exothermic change
(c) No heat change takes place
(d) Chemical reaction
Ans. (a)
64. The Baeyer’s reagent is:
(a) Alkaline KMnO4 solution
(b) Acidic KMnO4 solution
(c) Neutral KMnO4 solution
(d) Saturated KMnO4 solution
Ans. (a)
65. Ethyl amine reacts with chloroform and potassium hydroxide to produce:
(a) Ethyl chloride
(b) Ethyl isocyanides
(c) Ethyl cyanide
(d) Ethyl alcohol
Ans. (b)
66. Philosopher’s wool on heating with BaO at 1100°C produce:
(a) BaZnO2
(b) BaO2+Zn
(c) Ba+ZnO2
(d) BaCdO2
Ans. (a)
67. Fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine are placed in the same group 17 of the, periodic table because:
(a) They are nonmetals.
(b) They are electronegative
(c) Their atoms are generally univalent
(d) They have 7 electrons in the outermost shell of their atom
Ans. (d)
68. The rate of reaction depends upon the:
(a) Pressure
(b) Volume
(c) Concentration of reactants
(d) Force
Ans. (c)
69. Which of the following has highest chlorine content?
(a) Chloral
(b) Iodoform
(c) DDT
(d) Carbon tetrachloride
Ans. (c)
70. An aqueous solution containing 1 g of urea boils at 100.25°C. The aqueous solution containing 3 g of glucose in the same volume will boil at (mol. wt. of urea 60 and of glucose = 180)
(a) 100.25°C
(b) 100°C
(c) 100.15°C
(d) 100.50°C
Ans. (a)
71. The concentration unit independent of temperature is:
(a) Molarity
(b) Molality
(c) Normality
(d) Formality
Ans. (b)
72. Tautomerism is exhibited by:
(a) (CH3)2NH
(b) (CH3)3CNO
(c) RCH2NO2
(d) R3CNO2
Ans. (c)
73. Nitrogen is obtained by the thermal decomposition of:
(a) NH4NO2
(b) NH4NO3
(c) AgNO3
(d) Pb (NO3)2
Ans. (a)
74. Which of the following gases will have highest rate of diffusion?’
(a) CO2
(b) NH3
(c) O2
(d) N2
Ans. (b)
75. Zn and I2 reacts to form Zn12, which one is oxidized:
(a) Zinc ion
(b) Iodine ion
(c) Zinc atom
(d) Iodine
Ans. (a)

Physics

76. A body covers 200 cm in the first 2 s and 220 cm in the next 4 5. The velocity of the body at the end of the 7th second will be:
(a) 30 cm/s
(b) 25 cm/s
(c) 10 cm/s
(d) 15 cm/s
Ans. (c)
77. The escape velocity of a body from the earth is 11.2 km/s. If the radius of a planet is one fourth the radius of earth and its mass be one eighth that of the earth, then the escape velocity from planet will be:
(a) 38.34 km/s
(b) 16 km/s
(c) 4.25 km/s
(d) 7.92 km/s
Ans. (d)
78. A body, thrown upwards with same velocity, reaches the maximum height of 50 m. Another body of double the mass thrown up with double the velocity will reach a maximum height of:
(a) 800 m
(b) 400 m
(c) 200 m
(d) 100 m
Ans. (c)
79. A body of mass 1 kg is suspended by a thread it is:
(i) Lifted up with an acceleration of 4.9 m/s2,
(ii) Lowered with an acceleration of 4.9 m/s2.
The ratio of tensions in the thread will be:
(a) 2:1
(b) 1:4
(c) 1:3
(d) 3:1
Ans. (d)
80. An object producing a pitch of 1200 Hz is moving with a velocity of 50 m/s towards a stationary person. If the velocity of sound is, 350 m/s, then frequency of sound heard by a stationary person is:
(a) 250 Hz
(b) 1050 Hz
(c) 1200 Hz
(d) 1400 Hz
Ans. (d)
81. A wire when heated shows a 2% increase in length. The decrease in cross-sectional area will be:
(a) 4π
(b) 4%
(c) 2%
(d) 1%
Ans. (c)
82. A motor car is traveling at 30 m/s on a circular road of radius 500 m. It is increasing in speed at the rate of 2 m/s2. Then the acceleration of the car will be:
(a) 4 m/s2
(b) 3m/s2
(c) 2.7 m/s2
(d) 8m/s2
Ans. (c)
83. A body is dropped on to the floor from a height of 10 m. It rebounds to a height of 2.5m. If the body is in contact with the floor for 0.01 s, then the average acceleration during the contact will be (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 2835m/s2
(b) 2250m/s2
(c) 1450 m/s2
(d) 758 m/s2
Ans. (b)
84. A disc revolves in a horizontal plane at a steady rate of 3rev/s. A coin is placed at a distance of 2 cm from the axis of rotation remains at rest on the disc. The coefficient of friction between the coin and disc will be (g = 9.8 m/s2)
(a) 0.8249
(b) 0.7049
(c) 0.7243
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
85. At which temperature the Fahrenheit and Centigrade scales are equal?
(a) -48°
(b) – 40°
(c) 37°
(d) 40°
Ans. (b)
86. A 1cm long string vibrates with a frequency of 256 Hz. If the length is taken 0.25 cm, keeping the tension unaltered, then new frequency will be:
(a) 1024 Hz
(b) 1050 Hz
(c) 64Hz
(d) 512 Hz
Ans. (a)
87. Relation between critical angle of water and glass will be
(a) Cw=Cg=0
(b) Cw =Cg
(c) Cw <Cg
(d) Cw >Cg
Ans. (d)
88. A disc of mass 10 g is kept floating horizontally by throwing 10 marbles per second against it from below. If the mass of the e6ch marble is 5 g, what will be velocity with which the marbles are striking the disc? Assume that the marbles strike the disc normally and rebound downwards with the same speed:
(a) 2.98 m/s
(b) 0.98 m/s
(c) 0.49 m/s
(d) 1.96 m/s
Ans. (b)
89. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a velocity of 600 km/h at a height of 1960 m when it is vertically above the point A on the ground. A body is dropped from it. The body strikes the point B on the ground. The distance AB will be:
(a) 6.66 km
(b) 3.33 km
(c) 1.55km
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
90. A 16 kg block moving with velocity 4 m/s on a frictionless surface compresses an ideal spring and comes to rest. If the force constant of the spring be 100 N/m. Then the spring will be compressed of length:
(a) 3.2m
(b) 1.6m
(c) 0.8 m
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
91. Two springs have spring constants k 1 and k 2 (k1 > k2). On which spring more work will be done, if they are stretched by the same force?
(a) First spring
(b) Second spring
(c) Both the spring
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
92. There is hole of area A at the bottom of a cylindrical vessel. Water is filled upto a height h and water flows out in t second. If water is filled to a height 4h, it will flow out in time:
(a) t/4
(b) 2t
(c) 4t
(d) t/2
Ans. (b)
93. Air is filled in a bottle at atmospheric pressure and it is corked at 35°C. If the cork can come out at 3 atm pressure, then upto what temperature should the bottle be heated in order to remove the cork?
(a) 325.5°C
(b) 851°C
(c) 651°C
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
94. The resistance of a coil in a platinum resistance thermometer at 0°C is 5 Q and at 100°C it is 5.75 &2. Its resistance at an unknown temperature is 5.15 2. Then the unknown temperature will be:
(a) 40°C
(c) 15°C
(b) 10°C
(d) 20°C
Ans. (d)
95. A wall has two layers A and B each made of different material. Both the layers has the same thickness. The thermal conductivity of the material of A is twice that of B. Under thermal equilibrium, the temperature difference across the layer A, if the temperature difference across the combination is 36°C, is:
(a) 24°C
(b) 18°C
(c) 12°C
(d) 6°C
Ans. (c)
96. The elevation of a cloud is 60° above the horizon. A thunder is heard 8s after the observation of lightening. The speed of sound is 330 m/s. The vertical height of the cloud from the ground will be:
(a) 1143.12 m
(b) 2286.24 m
(c) 2486.24 m
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
97. A capacitor of 20µF charged upto 500 V is Z connected in parallel with another capacitor of 10µF which is charged upto 200 V. The common potential is:
(a) 250 V
(b) 300 V
(c) 400 V
(d) 600 V
Ans. (b)
98. Two inductors each of inductance are joined in parallel. Their equivalent inductance will be:
(a) L/4
(b) L/2
(c) 3 L
(d) 2 L
Ans. (b)
99. Eight identical cells each of potential E and internal resistance r are connected in series to form a closed circuit. An ideal voltmeter connected across 2 cells will read:
(a) 13 E
(b) 3 E
(c) 2 E
(d) 10 E
Ans. (c)
100. If the current gain is 100, then the emitter current in a transistor for a base current of 5 mA, will be:
(a) 3.505 A
(b) 4.505 A
(c) 0.505A
(d) 1.505A
Ans. (c)