Chemistry practice test for C.B.S.E. All India Engineering Entrance Exam. (AIEEE)

Chemistry practice test   for C.B.S.E. All India Engineering Entrance Exam. (AIEEE)
Free online AIEEE Practice Test chemistry
AIEEE sample paper Chemistry
All India Engineering Entrance Examination (AIEEE) is an all-India common entrance examination conducted by CBSE.This is a sample Paper on subject of Chemistry

1. Cyanide process is used for extraction of:

(a) Ag

(b) Ni

(c) Pt

(d) Zn

Ans. (a)

2. An acid solution of 0.005 M has a pH of 5. The degree of ionisation of acid is:

(a) 0.1 x 10^-2

(b) 0.2 x 10^-2

(c) 0.5 x 10^-4

(d) 0.6 x 10^-6

Ans. (b)

3. Which metal gives hydrogen gas on heating with hot concentrated alkali?

(a) Ag

(b) Ni

(c) Zn

(d) Cu

Ans. (c)

4. The conversion of ethyl chloride into diethyl ether takes place by:

(a) Williamson’s synthesis

(b) Perkin’s reaction

(c) Wurtz reaction

(d) Grignard reaction

Ans. (a)

5. CHCl₃ + C₆H₅NH₂ + 3NaOH ← A+3B+3C

In the above reaction, the product ‘A’ is:

(a) Chlorobenzene

(b) Phenyl isocyanides

(c) Phenyl cyanide

(d) Phenyl chloride

Ans. (b)

6. A gas is found to have a formula [CO] _x. Its vapour density is 70, the x is:

(a) 3.0

(b) 3.5

(c) 5.0

(d) 6.5

Ans. (c)

7. Which of the following is used as purgative?

(a) HgS

(b) Hg₂Cl₂

(c) HgC1₂

(d) ZnSO₄

Ans. (b)

8. Least stable oxide of chlorine is:

(a) Cl₂O

(b) ClO₂

(c) C1₂O₇

(d) ClO₃

Ans. (a)

9. The sides of safety matches contains

(a) Red phosphorus + sand powder

(b) P₄S₃

(c) Ca₃ (PO) ₄ + glass pieces

(d) KC1O₃, KNO₃, sulphur + antimony

Ans. (a)

10. Chemically aspirin is known as:

(a) Salicylic acid

(b) Salicylaldehyde

(c) 2-acetoxybenzoic acid

(d) Phenyl salicylate

Ans. (c)

11. Borax is represented as:

(a) Na₂B₄O₅(OH) ₄.8H₂O

(b) Na₂B₄O_7.8H₂O

(c) Na₂B₄O_7. 4H₂O

(d) Na₂B₄O₇.7H₂O

Ans. (a)

12. Which cannot be oxidized by H₂O₂ ?

(a) Na₂5O₃

(b) PbS

(c) KI

(d) O₂

Ans. (d)

13. The gas not absorbed by coconut charcoal is:

(a) He

(b) Ne

(c) Ar

(d) Kr

Ans. (a)

14. K1 and CuSO₄ solutions on mixing produce:

(a) Cu₂1₂ + K₂SO₄

(b) Cu₂1₂ + I₂ + K₂SO₄

(c) Cu1₂ ÷ K₂SO₄

(d) Cu1₂ + I₂ + K₂SO₄

Ans. (b)

15. Vitamin B12 contains:

(a) Co

(b) Mn

(c) Mg

(d) Fe

Ans. (a)

16. Water glass is:

(a) Glass made of water

(b) Sodium silicate

(c) Calcium format

(d) Pyrex glass

Ans. (b)

17. Purification of alumina takes place by:

(a) Bosch process

(b) Hall’s process

(C) Hoope’s process

(d) Quartation process

Ans. (b)

18. What will be the product in the following reaction?

Ans. (a)

19. What will be the TUPAC name of given compound?'

(a) 2, 5-diethyl-4-methylhexane

(b) 3, 4, 6-trimethyloctane

(c) 2, 5, 6-trimethyloctane

(d) 3, 5-dimethyl-6-ethylheptane

Ans. (b)

20. The correct order of hybridisation of the central atom in the following species:

NH₃, [PtCI₄] ^2-, PCl₅ and BCl₃ is:

(a) dsp², dsp³, sp², sp³

(b) sp³, dsp², sp³d, sp²

(c) dsp², sp2, sp3, dsp3

(d) dsp², sp³, sp², sp³

Ans. (b)

21. Unit of mole fraction is:

(a) mol-L

(b) mol/L²

(c) mol/L

(d) Dimensionless

Ans. (d)

22. The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid (H₃PO₄) in the reaction:

NaOH + H₃PO₄ → NaH₂PO₄ + H₂Ois:

(a) 59

(b) 49

(c) 25

(d) 98

Ans. (d)

23.

Ans. (c)

24. DDT is prepared by reacting chlorobenzene with:

(a) CHC1₃

(b) CCl₃ CHO

(c) CCl₄

(d) C₂H₆

Ans. (b)

25. According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, the product of uncertainties in position and ‘velocities for an electron of mass 9.1 xl0^-31 kg is

(a) 2.8 x10^-3 m²s^-1

(b) 3.8x 10^-5 m²s^-1

(c) 5.8 x 10^-5 m²s^-1

(d) 6.8 x 10^-6 m^2-1

Ans. (c)

26. The state of hybridisation of B in BCI₃ is:

(a) sp

(b) sp²

(c) sp³

(d) sp²d²

Ans. (b)

27. The significant figures in 3400 are:

(a) 2

(b) 5

(c) 6

(d) 4

Ans. (a)

28. For a Carnot engine, the source is at 500 K and the sink at 300 K. What is efficiency of this engine?

(a) 0.2

(b) 0.4

(c) 0.6

(d) 0.3

Ans. (b)

29. If 20 g of a solute was dissolved in 500 mL of water and osmotic pressure of the solution was found to be 600 mm of Hg at 15°C, then molecular weight of the solute is

(a) 1000

(b) 1200

(c) 1400

(d) 1800

Ans. (b)

30. Work done during isothermal expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from 10 atm to 1 atm at300 K is:

(a) 4938.8J

(b) 4138.8J

(c) 5744.1J

(d) 6257.2J

Ans. (c)

31. The number of sodium atoms in 2 moles of sodium ferrocyanide is:

(a) 12 x 10²³

(b) 26 x 10²³

(c) 34 x 10²³

(d) 48 x 10²³

Ans. (d)

32. According to Bohr’s principle, the relation between principle quantum number (n) and radius of orbit is

(a) r α n

(b) r α n²

(c) r α 1/n

(d) r α 1/n²

Ans. (b)

33. For an exothermic reaction, the value of:

(a) Δ E is negative

(b) Δ H is positive

(c) Δ H is negative

(d) Δ H equal to zero

Ans. (c)

34. The number of lattice arrangements in different crystal systems are

(a) 8

(b) 7

(c) 9

(d) 14

Ans. (b)

35. If equilibrium constants of reaction,

N₂+ O₂ = 2NO is K₁, and

1/2N₂ + 1/2O₂ =NO is K₂, then:

(a) K1 = K₂

(b) K₂ = √K₁

(c) K₁= 2K₂

(d) K₁ = 1/2K₂

Ans. (b)

36. Wolframite ore is separated from tins tone ore by the process of:

(a) Roasting

(b) Electromagnetic

(c) Smelting

(d) Calcinations

Ans. (b)

37. If solubility product of HgSO₄ is 6.4 x 10, then its solubility is:

(a) 8 x 10^-3 mol/L

(b) 6.4 x 10^-5 mol/L

(C) 6.4 x 10^-3 mol/L

(d) 2.8 x 10^-6 mol/L

Ans. (a)

38. Disintegration constant for a radioactive substance is 0.58 per hour. Its half-life period is:

(a) 82h

(b) 5.2h

(c) 1.2h

(d) 2.4h’

Ans. (c)

39. The rate constant of a reaction depends upon:

(a) Extent of reaction

(b) Time of reaction

(c) Temperature of the system

(d) Concentration of the system

Ans. (c)

40. A cylinder of 5 L capacity, filled with air at NTP, is connected with another evacuated cylinder of 30 L capacity. The resultant air pressure in both the cylinders will be:

(a) 10.8cm of Hg

(b) 14.9cm of Hg

(c) 21.8cm of Hg

(d) 38.8cm of Hg

Ans. (a)

41. The maximum number of hydrogen bonds formed by a water molecule in ice is :.

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c) 7

(d) 3

Ans. (d)

42. The volume strength of 1.5 N H₂O₂ solutions is:

(a) 8.4L

(c) 16.8L

(b) 4.2L

(d) 5.2 L

Ans. (a)

43. When a substance is dissolved in a solvent, the vapour pressure of solvent decreases. It brings:

(a) A decrease in boiling point of the solution

(b) An increase in boiling point of the solution

(c) A decrease in freezing point of the solution

(d) An increase in freezing point of the solution

Ans. (b)

44. Acetone reacts with iodine to form iodoform in the presence of:

(a) CaCO₃

(b) NaOH

(c) KOH

(d) MgCO₃

Ans. (b)

45. The chemical formula of diammine silver (I) chloride is

(a) [Ag(NH₃)]Cl

(b) [Ag(NH₃) ₂ ]Cl

(c) [Ag(NH₃) ₂] ₂ Cl

(d) [Ag (NH₄) ₂] CI

Ans. (b)

46. When alkyl halide is heated with dry Ag20, it produces:

(a) Ester

(c) Ketone

(b) Ether

(d) Alcohol

Ans. (b)

47. The IUPAC name of the compound

(a) 2-methoxy-1-butanol

(b) 3-methoxy-1-butanol

(c) 2-methoxy-1-butanal

(d) 1, 2-methoxy-butanol

Ans. (a)

48. Which of the following has the highest first ionisation energy?

(a) Li

(b) Be

(c) B

(d) C

Ans. (d)

49. Which of the following is used widely in the manufacture of lead storage battery?

(a) Arsenic

(b) Lithium

(c) Bismuth

(d) Antimony

Ans. (d)

50. By annealing, steel:

(a) becomes soft

(b) becomes liquid

(c) becomes hard and brittle

(d) Is covered with a thin film of Fe₃O₄

Ans. (a)

Read more »

Posted in: AIEEE , BE , CBSE , Chemistry , Model paper , PET , PMT , Question and Answers , quiz , test

chemistry mcq with answers

chemistry mcq with answers
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN CHEMISTRY
Chemistry Test and Chemistry Quiz
1. A solution has H ion concentration 0.0005 M. Its pOH is
(a) 8.279
(b) 12.285
(c) 10.699
(d) 13.335
Ans. (c)

2. 75% of a first order reaction was completed in 32 min when was 50% of the reaction
Completed?
(a) 24 min
(b) 16 min
(c) 8 min
(d) 48 min Ans. (b)

3. Cyano benzene has
(a) 7 sigma bonds and 4 pi bonds
(b) 7 sigma and 5 pi bonds
(c) 12 sigma and 6 pi bonds
(d) 13 sigma and 5 pi bonds
Ans. (d)

4. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X. The molecular mass of X is
(a) 4.0
(b) 8.0
(c) 32.0
(d) 64.0
Ans. (a)

5. When phosphorus reacts with caustic soda, the products are PH3 and NaH2PO2. This reaction is an example of
(a) Oxidation
(b) Reduction
(c) Disproportionation
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

6. The complete combustion of CH4 gives:
(a) CO + H2
(b) CO + N2
(c) CO2 + H2O
(d) CO + N2O
Ans. (c)

7. The amount of heat released when 20 mL of 0.5 M NaOH is mixed with 100 mL of 0.1 M HCI is x kJ. The heat of neutralization (in kJ mol-1) is
a) – 100 x
(b) – 50x
(c) +l00x
(d) +50x
Ans. (a)

8. Which one of the following is the true covalent oxide of iodine?
(a) I2O4
(b) I2O5
(c) I2O7
(d) I2O9
Ans. (b)

9. Which of the following two are isostructural?
(a) XeF2, IF2
(b) NH3, BF3
(c) CO3-2, SO3-2
(d) Pd5, ICl5
Ans. (a)

10. The complex used as an anticancer agent is
(a) mer [Co (NH3) 3C13]
(b) cis [PtCl2(NH3 )21
(c) cis K2[PtC12Br2J
(d) Na2 [COC14]
Ans. (c)

11. In order to distinguish between C2H5NH2 and C6H5NH2 which of the following reagents is useful?
(a) Hinsberg reagent
(b) 3-naphthol
(c) CHC13/KOH
(d) NaOH
Ans. (b)

12. Propane on hydrolysis in presence of H2SO4and HgSO4 gives
(a) Acetaldehyde
(b) Acetone
(c) Formaldehyde
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

13. What is the product obtained when chlorine reacts with ethyl alcohol in the presence of NaOH?
(a) CH3C1
(b) C2H2C1
(c) CC13CHO
(d) CHC13
Ans. (d)

14. Benzene on Ozonolysis yields
(a) Glyoxal
(b) Acetone
(c) Ethanol
(d) Methanol
Ans. (a)

15. How many structural isomers could be obtained from alkane C6H14?
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Seven
Ans. (b)
9. The amount of heat released when 20 mL of 0.5 M NaOH is mixed with 100 mL of 0.1 M HCI is x kJ. The heat of neutralization (in kJ mol-1) is
a) – 100 x
(b) – 50x
(c) +l00x
(d) +50x
Ans. (a)

10. Which of the following electrolyte has least molar conductivity?
(a). BeCl2
(b) BC13
(c) LiC1
(d) NaCl
Ans. (b)

11. Gold number is associated with
(a) Electrophoresis
(b) Purple of cassius
(c) Protective colloid
(d) Amount of pure gold
Ans. (c)

12. H2O2 is
(a) Poor polar solvent than water
(b) Better polar solvent than H20
(c) Both have equal polarity
(d) Better polar solvent but its strong auto oxidizing ability limits its use as such
Ans. (c)

13. Sodium metal is kept under
(a) Kerosene oil
(b) Alcohol
(c) Water
(d) Acids
Ans. (a)

14. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Coal gas
(b) Water gas
(c) Producer gas
(d) Carbon dioxide gas
Ans. (a)

15. Which out of the following is called sugar of lead?
(a) Pb(NO3) 2
(b) PbC12
(c) PbCO3 ‘Pb (OH) 2
(d) Pb(CH3COO) 2
Ans. (d)

16. In order to distinguish between C2H5NH2 and C6H5NH2 which of the following reagents is useful?
(a) Hinsberg reagent
(b) 3-naphthol
(c) CHC13/KOH
(d) NaOH
Ans. (b)

17. Propyne on hydrolysis in presence of H2SO4and HgSO4 gives
(a) Acetaldehyde
(b) Acetone
(c) Formaldehyde
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

18. What is the product obtained when chlorine reacts with ethyl alcohol in the presence of NaOH?
(a) CH3C1
(b) C2H2C1
(c) CC13CHO
(d) CHC13
Ans. (d)

19. Benzene on Ozonolysis yields
(a) Glyoxal
(b) Acetone
(c) Ethanol
(d) Methanol
Ans. (a)

20. How many structural isomers could be obtained from alkane C6H14?
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Seven
Ans. (b)

21. Among the following the weakest base is:
(a) H-
(b) CH-
(c) CH3O
(d) cl-
Ans. (d)

22. If 2.0 g of a radioactive isotope has half-life of 20 h, the half-life of 0.25 g of the same substance is
(a) 20h
(b) 80h
(c) 5h
(d) l0h
Ans. (a)

23. K02 is used in oxygen cylinders in space and submarine because it:
(a) Eliminates moisture
(b) Absorbs CO2
(c) Produces ozone
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

24. On heating quick lime with coke in an electric furnace we get:
(a) Ca and CO2
(b) CaCO3
(c) CaO
(d) CaC2
Ans. (d)

25. The material used in warfare in making smoke screens for military purposes is:
(a) PH3
(b) PC15
(c) SiCl4
(d) NH3
Ans. (a)

Read more »

Posted in: AIEEE , CBSE , Chemistry , PET , PMT , Question and Answers , quiz , test'

free online chemistry test

free online chemistry test
Free online chemistry practice test for all entrance exams
Free Online Chemistry Sample Paper
Free online chemistry practice test for PMT PET

1. How much of NaOH is required to neutralise 1500 cc of 0.1 N HCl (Na = 23)

(a) 60g

(b) 6g

(c) 4g

(d) 40g

Ans. (b)

2. Order of reaction is decided by:

(a) molecularity

(b) pressure

(c) temperature

(d) mechanism of reaction s well as relative concentration of reactants

Ans. (d)

3. Reaction of aniline with benzaldehyde is:

(a) polymerisation

(b) condensation

(c) addition

(d) substitution

Ans. (b)

4. The simplest way to check whether a system is colloidal is by:

(a) electrodialyis

(b) finding out particle size

(c) Tyndall effect

(d) Brownian movement

Ans. (c)

5. According to Fajan’s rule, covalent bond is favoured by:

(a) small cation and large anion

(b) large cation and small anion

(c) large cation and large anion

(d) small cation and small anion

Ans. (a)

6. The type of hybrid orbitals used by the chlorine atom in ClO₂^- is:

(a) sp³

(b) sp²

(c) sp

(d) none of these

Ans. (a)

7. The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is:

(a) 0.46 N

(b) 0.23 N

(c) 2.3 N

(d) 4.6 N

Ans. (d)

8. A 500 g tooth-paste sample has 0.2kg fluoride concentration. What is the concentration of fluoride in terms of ppm level?

(a) 250

(b) 200

(c) 400

(d) 1000

Ans. (c)

9. At 30°C the solubility of Ag₂CO₃ (K _sp = 8 x 10^-12) would be greatest in one litre

of:

(a) 0.05 M Na₂CO₃

(b) 0.05 M AgNO₃

(c) pure water

(d) 0.05 M NH₃

Ans. (d)

10. Lithopone, a substitute of white lead is:

(a) BaSO₄ + ZnS

(b) BaSO₄ + ZnO

(c) PbCO₃. Pb(OH)₂

(d) none of the above

Ans. (a)

11. In Nessler’s reagent the active ion is:

(a) Hg⁺

(b) Hg²⁺

(c) [HgI]^2-

(d) [Hg1₄]^2-

Ans. (d)

12. The product obtained by means of HgSO₄ + H₂SO₄ from 1-butyne would be:

(a) CH₃CH₂CH₂CHO

(b) CH₃CH₂COCH₃

(c) CH₃CH₂CHO + HCHO

(d) CH₃CH₂COOH + HCOOH

Ans. (b)

13. The increasing order of acidity among phenol, p-methyl phenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol is:

(a) phenol, p-methyl phenol, p-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol

(b) p-methyl phenol, phenol, in-nitrophenol, – p-nitrophenol

(c) p-methyl phenol, m-nitrophenol, phenol, p-methyl phenol

(d) m-nitrophenol, p-nitrophenol, phenol, p-methyl phenol

Ans. (b)

14. Bismarck brown is example of:

(a) phthalein dye

(b) azodye

(c) anthraquinone dye

(d) nitro dye

Ans. (b)

15. Which of the following species planar shape?

(a) CH₃^-

(b) CH₃⁺

(c) BF₄^-

(d) SiH₄

Ans. (b)

16. Mond’s process is used for preparing:

(a) Ni

(b) Co

(c) NH₃

(d) H₂SO₄

Ans. (a)

17. The most abundant salt of sodium is its:

(a) chloride

(b) nitrate

(c) sulphate

(d) phosphate

Ans. (a)

18. A smuggler could not carry gold by depositing iron on the gold surface since:

(a) gold is denser

(b) iron rusts

(c) gold has higher reduction potential than iron

(d) gold has lower reduction potential than iron

Ans. (c)

19. The ionic product of water will increase if:

(a) pressure is decreased

(b) H⁺ ions are added

(c) OH^- ions are added

(d) temperature is increased

Ans. (d)

20. Which of the following is not isoelectronic?

(a) Na⁺

(b) Mg²⁺

(c) O2^2-

(d) C1^-

Ans. (d)

21. From which of the following t-butyl alcohol is obtained by the action of methyl magnesium bromide?

(a) HCHO

(b) CH₃COCH₃

(c) CH₃CHO

(d) CO₂

Ans. (b)

22. The shape of gaseous SnCl2 is:

(a) Angular

(b) Linear

(c) Tetrahedral

(d) T-shaped

Ans. (a)

23. Which of the following metal is found in gun metal, monel metal and brass alloy?

(a) Zn

(b) Hg

(c) Fe

(d) Cu

Ans. (d)

24. According to Lewis the ligands are:

(a) Acidic in nature

(b) Basic in nature

(c) Neither acidic nor basic

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

25. Diamond is a:

(a) Ionic crystal

(b) Covalent crystal

(c) Metallic crystal

(d) Molecular crystal

Ans. (b)

26. An aqueous solution freezes at— 0.186°C, what is the elevation in boiling point?

(k_f.= 1.86, k_b 0.512)

(a) 0.186

(b) 0.512

(c) 0.05 12

(d) 0.86

Ans. (c)

27. The reference electrode is made from which of the following?

(a) ZnC1₂

(b) CuSO₄

(c) Hg₂Cl₂

(d) HgCl₂

Ans. (c)

28. Assuming fully decomposed, the volume of CO₂ released at SW on heating 9.85 g of BaCO₃(at. wt. of Ba = 137) will be:

(a) 1.12L

(b) 0.84L

(c) 2.24 L

(d) 4.06 L

Ans. (a)

29. The frequency of yellow light having wavelength 600 nm is:

(a) 5×10¹⁴Hz

(b) 5×10¹⁷Hz

(c) 2.5×10¹⁴Hz

(d) 2.5xl0⁷Hz

Ans. (a)

30. Which of the following represents the correct sets of the four quantum numbers of 4 d electrons?

(a) 4, 3, 2, + 1/2

(b) 4, 2, 1, 0

(c) 4, 3, – 2, + 1/2

(d) 4, 2, 1, – ½

Ans. (d)

31. A mixture of iodine and sand can be separated by:

(a) Sublimation

(b) Crystallization

(c) Filtration

(d) Distillation

Ans. (a)

32. Number of gram of oxygen in 322 g of Na2SO4-10H20 is:

(a) 20.8

(b) 224

(c) 208

(d) 22.4

Ans. (b)

33. During the extraction of silver which of the following is formed?

(a) Na[Ag(CN) ₂]

(b) Na₂ [Ag(CN) ₂]

(c) Na₂4[Ag(CN) ₂]

(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

34. The electronic configuration of Sc₂₁ is:

(a) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4s2 3d2

(b) Is2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4sO 3d3

(c) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4s1 3d2

(d) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4s2 3d1

Ans. (d)

35. The oxidation state of Fe in brown complex [Fe(H₂O)₅NO]SO⁴ is

(a) +3

(b) +4

(C) +2

(d) +1

Ans. (c)

Ans. (b)

36. The bond order in N⁺₂ is:

(a) 50.5

(b) 11.2

(c) 5.6

(d) 30.2

Ans. (a)

37. When benzoic acid reacts with conc. HNO³ and H₂SO⁴ the products is:

(a) 2, 4-dinitrobehzoic acid

(b) 3-nitrobenzoic acid

(c) 1, 3-dinitrobenzoic acid

(d) 2-nitrobenzoic acid

Ans. (b)

38. Which is correct statement about proton?

(a) Proton is the nucleus of deuterium

(b) Proton is alpha particle

(c) Proton is ionised hydrogen molecule

(d) Proton is ionised hydrogen atom

Ans. (d)

39. Which of the following conditions are necessary in preparation of aryl halides?

(a) Low temperature

(b) Absence of sunlight

(c) Presence of halogen carrier

(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

40. Which of the following is formed as an intermediate in the conversion of ethanol to ethylene in presence of concentrated H₂SO₄?

(a) CH₃CH₂OSO₃H

(b) CH₃CH

(c) (CH₃CH₂)₂SO₄

(d) CH₃CH

Ans. (b)

41. An organic compound ‘A’ has the molecular formula C3H60. It undergoes iodoform test. When saturated with HC1 it gives ‘B’ of molecular formula C H1O ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are

(a) propanal and mesitylene

(b) propanone and mesityl oxide

(c) propanone and 2, 6-dimethyl-2, 5 heptadien-4-one

(d) propane and mesitylene oxide

Ans. (c)

42. TUPAC name of CH₂ =CHCN is:

(a) ethenenitrile

(b) vinyl cyanide

(c) cyanoethene

(d) 2-propenenitrile

Ans. (c)

43. Which of the following halogen is purified by sublimation?

(a) F₂

(b) C_l2

(c) Br₂

(d) I₂

Ans. (d)

44. Which one has the lowest boiling point?

(a) NH₃

(b) PH₃

(c) AsH₃

(d) SbH₃

Ans. (b)

45. Proteins on heating with concentratedHNO3 produce yellow colour, this test is known as

(a) Millon’s test

(b) Xanthoprotein test

(c) Hopkin’s test

(d) Ninhydrin test

Ans. (b)

46. The compound which is not coloured is:

(a) K₄Fe(CN)₆

(b) K₃Fe(CN)₆

(c) Na₂CdCI₄

(4) Na₂CuCl₄

Ans. (c)

47. Reduction of nitrobenzene by alkaline sodium arsenite forms

(a) aniline

(b) azobenzene

(c) hydrazobenzene

(d) azoxybenzene

Ans. (d)

48. The types of impurities present in bauxite ore are:

(a) Fe₂O₃

(b) Cu₂O

(c) CO₂

(d) SiO₃

Ans. (a)

49. When calcium salts of dicarboxylic acids are subjected to dry distillation, a cyclic ketone having one carbon atom less is formed. This is called

(a) Clemmensen’s reduction

(b) Dieckmann’s method

(c) Wislicenus method

(d) Freund’s method

Ans. (c)

50. The physical adsorption of gases on the solid surface is due to:

(a) covalent bond

(b) hydrogen bond

(c) ionic bond

(d) van der Waals’ forces

Ans. (d)

Read more »

Posted in: AIEEE , CBSE , Chemistry , PET , PMT , Question and Answers , quiz , test