Sunday, March 11, 2012

differentiation formulas

Maths differentiation formulas

Algebric Function

Product Rule And Quotient Rule

Trignomatric Function And Inverse Trignomatric Function

Thanks..

Friday, March 9, 2012

arfa-kareem-arfa-abdul-karim-randhawa

Arfa Kareem

Arfa Abdul Karim Randhawa (Urduارفع کریم رندهاوا‎, 2 February 1995 – 14 January 2012) was a Pakistani student and computer prodigy, who in 2004 at the age of nine years becameMicrosoft Certified Professional (MCP), the youngest in the world until 2008. She was invited by Bill Gates to visit the Microsoft Headquarters in the USA. A science park in Lahore was named after her, the Arfa Software Technology Park.

Arfa Abdul Karim has represented Pakistan on various international forums, and was invited by the Pakistan Information Technology Professionals Forum for a stay of two weeks in Dubai. A dinner reception was hosted for her there, which was attended by the dignitaries of Dubai including the Ambassador of Pakistan. During that trip, Arfa was presented with various awards and gifts including a laptop. In November 2006, Arfa attended the Tech-Ed Developers conference themed Get ahead of the game held in Barcelona on an invitation from Microsoft. She was the only Pakistani among over 5000 developers in that conference



In 2011, at the age of 16, Arfa Abdul Karim was studying at the Lahore Grammar School Paragon Campus in her second year of A-levels. On 22 December 2011 she suffered a cardiac arrest after an epileptic seizure that damaged her brain, and was admitted to Lahore's Combined Military Hospital (CMH) in critical condition.
On 9 January 2012, Bill Gates, chairman of Microsoft, contacted Arfa's parents and directed his doctors to adopt "every kind of measure" for her treatment. Gates set up a special panel of international doctors who remained in contact with her local doctors through teleconference. The panel received details about her illness and provided assistance in diagnosis and treatment. Local doctors dismissed the option of moving Arfa to another hospital owing to her being on a ventilator and in critical condition. Members of Arfa's family have lauded Bill Gates for offering to bear her treatment expenses.
On 13 January 2012, Arfa Abdul Karim started to improve and some parts of her brain showed signs of improvement. Her father, Amjad Abdul Karim Randhawa, said Microsoft had raised the possibility of flying Arfa to the US for care.

On 14 January 2012, 16-year-old Arfa Abdul Karim died at 9:50 PM (Pakistan Standard Time) at Combined Military Hospital (CMH) Lahore.

Wednesday, March 7, 2012

Latest GK India, March 2012

Latest GK India, March 2012


According to 2011 Annual Report of the International Narcotics Control Board (INCB) released globally in Vienna, which country figures high in online dope trade?
- India ( 151 Kg illicit drugs recovered from 152 parcels in 2011)


What are the harsher punishments for traffic violations according to the amended Motor Vehicle Act approved on 1st March, 2012 by government?
For drunken driving the increased fine will range from Rs 2000 to 10,000 and imprisonment from six months to four years. For using mobile phones while driving fine raised to Rs 500 for first offence and Rs 2000 to Rs 5000 for subsequent offences.

India and which other country with long coastline have agreed to hold first ever maritime talks?
- China


Who is appointed new Air Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Training Command, IAF in Bangalore on 1st March,2012?
- Air Marshal Rajinder Singh ( Born in 1953 at Palampur, H.P)


Recently a pin shaped device suspected to be a remote electronic listening device was found in whose office?
- In the office of Defence Minister AK Antony on 16th Feb, 2012


Who has been appointed as the chairman of the monitoring authority that is supervising the investigations into 22 alleged fake encounter killings in Gujarat during 2002-06 by the Supreme Court on 2nd March,2012?
- Retired judge HS Bedi


Who will be Pakistan's new cricket coach? 
- Former Australian batsman Dav Whatmore


Who will be the next Army Chief after General VK Singh, retiring from service on 31st May,2012?
- Lieutenant General Bikram Singh (second-ever Sikh, after General JJ Singh (retd.) to command the 1.3 million strong Indian Army)


When did the Army successfully test fired the 290 Km range BrahMos supersonic cruise missile at the Pokharan range to operationalize the second regiment of the weapon system in service?
- On 4th March, 2012 ( One regiment of the 290 Km range BrahMos consists around 65 missiles, five mobile autonomous launchers on Tatra vehicles and two mobile command posts, among other equipments.) 

Who clinched the first women's Kabaddi World Cup championship title after defeating Iran?
- India

Saturday, May 28, 2011

mpboard class 10th result Declared [today 28-05-2011]

mp board class 10th result will be declared today[28-5-2011]

all students may visit mp borad official site for result and other information



http://mpresults.nic.in/MPBSE/Class_X2011/result10Class2011.htm




Best of luck for your result




http://mpresults.nic.in/MPBSE/Class_X2011/result10Class2011.htm




visit regularly our forum for all result,admit card,syllabus,timetable etc



http://a2zinfo.info.ru.com

Tuesday, May 24, 2011

MP PET 2011 Answer Key & Solution (Exam held on 22 May)[published]

MP PET 2011 Answer Key & Solution (Exam held on 22 May 2011)

Madhya Pradesh Pre Engineering Test is
conducted by Professional Examination Board, Madhya Pradesh, Bhopal
for admission to BE/BArch/BTech (Agril Engg) and BTech (Dairy Tech)
courses in : (I) Government Engineering Colleges; (ii) Private Engineering
Colleges;

i will upload the the both solution paper 1 and paper 2...

download below attachment...


click below link to get pet 2011 may 22 pet entrance exam solutions..


http://a2zinfo.info.ru.com/showthread.php?tid=32

Thursday, May 19, 2011

Economics Question Bank Economy Quiz solved Economics Test

Economics Question Bank Economy Quiz solved Economics Test
answer questions about economics
MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS. Sample Test Multiple Choice Questions MCQ
economics review questions and economics interview questions
1. The basic difference between imperative and indicative planning is that ?
(a) it is easier to achieve targets in imperative type of planning
(b) in the case of imperative planning, all economic activities belong to public sector, while in the other type they belong to the private sector.
(c) in the case of the imperative planning, the market mechanism is entirely replaced by a command hierarchy, while in the case of indicative planning, it is looked upon as a way to improve the functioning of the market system
(d) in the case of indicative planning, there is no need to nationalize any industry

2. The principal reason why national economic planning is still being pursued in spite of embracing a market economy since 1991 is that
(a) The vast quantity of capital already deployed in the public sector needs to be nurtured.
(b) The market economy is mainly confined to industry and commerce, and central planning in agriculture is necessary.
(c) It is a constitutional requirement.
(d) Five Year Plans can continue to provide a long-term perspective to the economy in market friendly fashions.
3. The type of planning experimented between 1978 and 1980 is known as
(a) Rolling Plan
(b) Annual Plan
(c) Indicative Plan
(d) Collective Plan
4 Narasimhan report relates to the restructuring of
(a)sick industries
(b) sales tax
(c)income tax
(d) banks
5. Which of the following organizations functions as an apex institution for the agencies engaged in the economic development of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?
(a) National Research Development Corporation
(b) National Institute of Rural Development
(c) National Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation
(d) National Bank For Agriculture and Rural
Development
6. Rural Development Programmes are related to
(a) Self employment
(b) giving jobs to the poorer graduates
(c) poverty alleviation in states
(d) None of these
7. When was the Cooperative Societies Act first passed in India?
(a) 1900
(b) 1902
(c) 1904
(d) 1906
8. Sarvodaya aimed at ?
(a) classless society
(b) economic revolution
(c) upliftment of weaker sections
(d) upliftment of all, irrespective of their status
9. ‘Utility’ in economics means the capacity to
(a) provide comforts
(b) earn an income
(c) satisfy human wants
(4) satisfy human motives
10. Debt service ratio implies ratio between
(a) import and debt
(b) export and principal plus and payment on debt
(c) domestic saving and import
(4)domestic saving and export
11. Saving is a function of
(a)investment
(b) income
(c) export
(d) improvement in productivity
12. A deflator is a technique of ?
(a) adjusting for changes in price level
(b) adjusting for change in commodity
(c) accounting for higher increase of GNP
(d) accounting for decline of GNP
13. Credit is a
(a)Stock concept
(b) Flow concept
(c) Stock flow concept
(4) None of these
14, The concept of Joint Sector implies association
between
(a) Small and large industries
(b) State and Central Govt enterprises
(c) Indian and multinational companies
(d) Public sector and private sector industries
15. Which of the following is the correct description of the term ‘tainted shares’?
(a) The shares purchased by NRIs
(b) The shares which were involved in the case of securities scam
(c) The shares whose price falls by mote than 20 points in a day
(d) The shares the price of which falls continuously for seven days
16. A loan bearing low rate of interest is known as
(a)Hard loan
(b) Soft loan
(c) Capital loan
(d)Real loan

17. White goods are
(a) basic raw materials
(b) cosmetic articles
(c) goods imported from the western countries
(d) durable consumption goods
18. Sellers market denotes a situation where
(a) commodities are available at competitive
rates
(b)demand exceeds supply
(c)supply exceeds demand
(d) supply and demand are evenly balanced.
19. ‘Mixed Economy’ means
(a) co-existence of small scale and large scale industries
(b) co-existence of the rich and the poor
(c) co-existence of private and public sector
(d) assigning equal importance to both agriculture and heavy industries
20. Which of the following best defines the term ‘Letter of Credit’ as used frequently in bank transactions?
(a) An order from a bank to another bank abroad authorizes the payment of a particular amount to a person named in the letter
(b) An unconditional undertaking given by a bank ensuring the payment of a particular amount to the drawee at a given date
(c) Letter by a bank to a person stating the terms and conditions of the loan sanctioned to him by the bank
(d) Statement showing outstanding deposits and credits of a hank for a particular period
21, Unemployment which occurs when workers move from one job to another job is known as
(a) Seasonal unemployment
(b) Frictional unemployment
(c) Cyclical unemployment
(d) Technological unemployment
22. GNP (Gross National Product) is the money value of
(a) final goods and services produced annually in the economy
(b) annual service generation in the economy
(c) tangible goods available in the economy
(d) tangible goods produced annually in the
economy
23. Development means economic growth plus
(a)inflation
(b) deflation
(c)price stability
(d) social change
24. A Multinational is ?
(a) a company operating in several countries
(b) a company having share holders from more than one country
(c) a company which does charitable work in poor countries
(d) a company that operates only in those countries that do not have import restrictions
25. ‘Take off stage’ in an economy means
(a) steady growth begins
(b) economy is stagnant
(c) economy is about to collapse
(d) all controls are removed
26. ‘A formal evaluation of an individual’s or company’s credit history and capability of repaying obligations’ is known as
(a)Amortization
(b) Net Asset Value
(c) Credit rating
(d) Cash Credit
27. The balance of payment comprises
(a) official settlement account
(b) a current account of goods and services
(c) a capital account of financial assets
(d) All the above
28. The State’s action under which a creditor’s right to take action against a debtor for realization of debt – money is kept under suspension for a specified period is called.
(a)Rationalization
(b)Ceiling
(c)Embargo
(d) Moratorium
29. Equilibrium price is that price which
(a) maximizes producers profit
(b) equates consumers and producers surplus
(c) maximizes consumer’s satisfaction
equates supply and demand

30. ‘Capital goods’ refer to goods which
(a) serve as a source of raising further capital
(b) help in the further production of goods
(c) directly go into the satisfaction of human wants
(d) find multiple uses
Answers :
1 B
2 D
3 A
4 D
5 C
6 C
7 C
8 D
9 C
10 B
11 B
12 A
13 B
14 D
15 B
16 B
17 D
18 B
19 C
20 C
21 B
22 A
23 D
24 A
25 A
26 C
27 D
28 D
29 D
30 B

General Economics Model Test paper For ICAI CPT 2010 Exams

General Economics Model Test paper For ICAI CPT 2010 Exams
1. ‘Golden Hand Shake Scheme’ refers to
(a) Agricultural Policy
(b) Exit Policy
(c) New Industrial Policy
(d) None of these
2. Which of the following institutions providing finance to the industrial sector was the first to be set up ?
(a) Industrial Reconstruction Corporation of India
(b) Industrial Finance Corporation of India
(c) Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
(d) Industrial Development Bank of India

3. Which of the following is associated with the consultancy business, in the transport sector of the Government of India?
(a) IRCON
(b)IFCI
(c) RITES
(d) CONCOR
Directions: Given below are two statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Which of the following is true in their context?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare true but K is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
4. Assertion (A) : The ratio of direct taxes to gross domestic product in India has been falling in the recent past.
Reason (R) : Unaccounted ‘black’ money has grown rapidly.
5. Assertion (A) : In inflation, there is increase in money – supply and the rise in price level.
Reason (R) : The rise in price level is due to shortage in supply of essential consumer goods.
6. Assertion (A) : The Five Year Plans form the basis of Indian economy.
Reason (R): India follows Soviet pattem of planning.
7. Assertion (A) : When the price of X rises, the quantity demanded of Y increases.
Reason (R): X and Y are substitutes
8. GATT headquarters is located at ?
(a)Geneva
(b) Paris
(c)Washington
(d) Hague
9. Voting rights in the International Monetary Fund (IMF) are distributed on the basis of ?
(a) one country, one vote
(b) proportion to the share of the income of the country in the world income
(c) proportion to contributions given by each country
(d) proportion to quota allocated to countries from time to time
10. The headquarters of IMF is situated in
(a)England
(b) New York
(c)Washington
(d) Tokyo
11. Which of the following economic groups are the organisations of the Third World Countries?
1 South Commission
2. Group of 77
3. Council of Mutual Economic Assistance
4. Association of South- East Asian Nation
(a)1,2 and 3
(b) 1,2 and 4
(c)1,3 and 4
(4) 2,3 and 4
12. Most Favoured Nations (MFN) clause under GATT implies
(a) most favour to some countries
(b) no favour to some countries
(c) most favour to all countries
(d) no favour to any country
13. Which of the following types of borrowings from the IMP has the Softest servicing conditions
(a)Oil facility
(b) ESAF
(c) Second Trancha Loan
(d) SAP
14. The main function of I.M.F. is to
(a) finance investment loans to developing countries
(b) act as a private sector lending ann of the World Bank
(c) help to solve balance of payment problems of member countries
(d) arrange international deposits from banks

15. World Bank is a body
(a) of non -official, generous individuals
(b) that controls world wide foreign exchange operations
(c) of major banks operating in different countries
(d) that gives aid to developing countries
16. The World Investment Report (WIR) is publish ed by which of the following bodies?
(a) General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)
(b) Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
(c) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(d) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
17. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development is located at?
(a) Geneva
(b) Washington
(c) London
(d) New York
18. Which of the following were objectives for which the International Monetary Fund was established?
1. Promoting International Monetary Cooperation
2. Expanding International Trade
3. Lessening disequilibrium of balances of payment
4. Avoiding competitive exchange depreciations
(a) l,2 & 3
(b) l, 3& 4
(c)2 & 4
(d) l,2,3 & 4
19. ‘Conditionality ‘of an I.M.F; loan to a member country stands for
(a) interest and repayment terms of the loan
(b) an assessment of the credit worthiness of the borrower
(c) schedule of disbursement of loan installments
(d) the policy steps which the borrower country must take
20. The Asian Development Bank has its head quarters in ?
(a)Manila
(b) Kathmandu
(c)Tokyo
(d) Colombo
Answers
1    b
2    b
3    c
4    a
5    a
6    c
7    a
8    a
9    d
10    c
11    b
12    c
13    b
14    c
15    d
16    d
17    b
18    d
19    c
20    a

India economics questions test exercises MCQ Objective Quiz

India economics questions test exercises MCQ Objective Quiz
economics questions test worksheets practice test
Basic economic principles and facts
Basic Economics MCQ’s with Answers
Multiple choice questions economics?
1. Which of the following are the measures of Integrated Slum Development Programme adopted in India in the 11 Five Year Plan?
1. Creating and updating database on slums.
2. Using land as a resources for housing and shelter development for slum dwellers.
3. Asking slum dwellers to apply for house loan from government.
4. Granting tenure security to slum dwellers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a)1,2 and 3
(b)1 and 2
(c)2 and 4
(d)1,2 and 4
Ans. (d)
2. Demographic divide refers to a rise in population
(a) between the age group of I to 14 years
(b) between the age group of 15 to 64 years
(c) between the age group of 65 to 74 years
(d) above 74 years
Ans. (b)
3. The total public sector outlay in the Eleventh Five Year Plan (Central, State and Union Territories) is estimated at about:
(a)Rs. 30 lakh crore
(b) Rs. 36 lakh crore
(c)Rs. 40 lakh crore
(d) Rs. 46 lakh crore
Ans. (b)
4. Which one of the following is the prescribed investment limit for medium enterprises in the manufacturing sector as per the Micro,Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006?
(a) More than Rs. 10 lakh and less than Rs. 2 crore
(b) More than Rs. 2 crore and less than Rs. 5 crore
(c) More than Rs. 5 crore and less than Rs. 10 crore
(d) More than Rs. 10 crore
Ans. (d)
5. Which one of the following statements regarding Aam Admi Bima Yojana (AABY) is not correct?
(a) It was launched in the year 2007
(b) The contribution of the Central Government and State Governments in the premium is in the ratio of 75 : 25
(c) The scheme is applicable to rural landless households
(d) It provides insurance against natural death as well as accidental death
Ans. (b)
6. Balance on capital account refers to the
(a) nation’s net exports of goods, and services
(b) nation’s net exports of financial claims
(c) nation’s net exports of international official reserve assets
(d) nation’s sum of net exports of goods, services and financial claims
Ans. (a)
7.With which one of the following does the Prebisch-Singer hypothesis deal?
(a) Terms of trade of less developed countries
(b) Terms of trade of developed countries
(c) Balance of payments of less developed countries
(d) Balance of payments of developed countries
Ans. (c)
8. The effect of trade with different production possibilities curves
and identical indifference curves is to make a country.
(a) more specialized in consumption and less specialized in production
(b) more specialized in production and less specialized in consumption
(c) less specialized both in consumption and in production
(d) more specialized both in consumption and in production
Ans.(d)
9. consider the following statements:
When factor intensity reversal occurs
1. Heckscher-Ohlin trade model fads.
2. factor price equalization theorem fails.
3. elasticity of substitution of one factor for the other is much higher in the production of a commodity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b) 2 only
(c)1 and3
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans. (d)
10. Under which one of the following conditions is the gain from international trade maximised?
(a) Marginal rate of transformation (MRT) in production is equal to the marginal rate of substitution (MRS) in consumption
(b) MRT in production is greater than MRS in consumption
(c) MRT in production is less than MRS in consumption
(d) MRT in production and MRS in consumption are equal to international price ratio
Ans. (a)
11. The Lorenz curve shows the relationship between
(a) asset creation and income generation
(b) population groups and their respective income shares
(c) unemployment and inflation
(d) wages, labour hours and leisure
Ans. (b)
12. Which of the following are the characteristics of the Traditional
Society in Rostow’s Stage theory?
1. Limited production function.
2. No government intervention.
3. Pre-Newtonian science and technology.
4. Dominance of agricultural activity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1,2and4
(b) 1,2and3
(c) 1,3and4
(d) 2,3 ánd4
Ans. (c)
13. Which one of the following is the difference between value at
market prices and value at factor cost for a national aggregate?
(a) Value of consumption of fixed capital
(b) Value of indirect taxes net of subsidies
(c) Value of net factor income earned abroad
(d) Value of subsidies net of indirect taxes
Ans. (b)
14.Given C=120+0.4Y,
I=100,
G=56
(Where C =Consumption, I = Investment, G =Government Expenditure and
Y = Income); which one of the following is the value of equilibrium income?
(a) 366.67
(b) 460.00
(c) 310.00
(d) 266.67
Ans:b
15. According to Life Cycle Hypothesis, consumption is related to which one of the following?
(a) Current income
(b) Past peak level income
(c) Life time expected income
(d) Price expectations over one’s life time
Ans. (c)
16. Keynes states that the aggregate demand function is:
(a) an increasing function of the level of employment
(b) a decreasing function of the level of employment
(c) a constant function of the level of employment
(d) not related to the level of employment
Ans. (a)
17. Which of the following are the limitations of national income
estimation in India?
1. Output of non-monetized sector. -
2. Non availability of data about income of small producers or household enterprises.
3. Unreported legal income.
4. Inflation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1,2,3and4
(b) 1,2and3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (b)
18. Which one of The following is shown by the Phillips Curve?
(a) Inverse relationship between real and nominal wages
(b) Inverse relationship between the rate of inflation and rate of unemployment
(c) Positive relationship between nominal wages and the rate of employment -
(d) Positive relationship between rate of inflation and nominal wages
Ans. (b)
19. If a producer pays the price for each of the inputs that it uses, equal to its value of marginal product, then which one of the following does it earn?
(a) Positive supernormal profit
(b) Zero supernormal profit
(c) Negative supernormal profit
(d) Monopoly profit
Ans. (b)
20. The costs of factors of production, supplied by the entrepreneur
himself are known as
(a) implicit costs
(b) explicit costs
(c) fixed costs
(d) variable costs
Ans. (b)
21.Which one of the following taxes/cess is levied by States in
India?
(a) Tax on motor vehicles
(c) Educational cess
(b) Tax on hotels
(d) Tax on wealth
Ans. (a)
22. Which one of the following is capital receipt in government budget?
(a) Interest receipts o loans given by the Government to other parties
(b) Dividends and profits from public sector undertakings
(c) Borrowing of the Government from public
(d) Property tax receipts
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following are the characteristics of progressive
tax?
I. Marginal tax rate should be increasing.
2. Marginal tax rate should be more than average tax rate.
3. Gini coefficient for the post-tax distribution of income should be less than that of pre-tax distribution.
4. Tax amount should be lump sum in nature.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1,2,3and4
(b) 1,2and3
(c) 1 and 4
(d)2 and 3
Ans. (a)
24. Consider the following statements regarding argument for free
trade:
1. Free trade leads to maximization of output, income and
employment.
2. Free trade prevents monopoly.
3. Free trade protects domestic industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2and3
(d) 1,2and 3
Ans. (b)
25. Marshall-Lerner condition states that the foreign exchange market would be stable if the sum of the price elasticities of the demand for imports and the demand for exports is:
(a)greater than one
(b) less than one
(c)equal to one
(d) equal to zero
Ans. (c)

India economics Model question papers previous years old question papers based

India economics Model question papers and previous years old question papers based
Based on Previous Years Question Papers – UPSC
Free online test economics BA graduate level
Objective practice Questions
Indian economics and economic theory

Directions : The following two (2) items consist of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Assertion (A) ‘and the other as ‘Reason ®. You are to examine these Two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and It is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but It is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, butR is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
1. Assertion (A) Marginal cost curve is U-shaped.
Reason (R) : The law of variable proportions operates in production sphere.
2. Assertion (A) A firm under monopolistic competition incurs extra expenditure advertisement.
Reason (R) There is free entry and free exit of firms under monopolistic competition.
3. The production function for a commodity is given by Q = 10 √ LK, where Q the quantity of Output, L is the quantity of Labour and K is the quantity of Capital. Given the above information, which one of the following is the nature of return to scale throughout the function?
(a) Constant return to scale
(b) Decreasing return to scale only
(c) Increasing return to scale only
(d) Both decreasing and increasing return to scale
4. Consider the following statements:
1. In case of imperative planning, the market mechanism is entirely replaced by a command hierarchy, while in case of indicative planning, it is looked upon as a way to improve the functioning of market system.
2. In case of imperative planning, all economic activities belong to the public sector, while in case of indicative planning they belong to the private sector
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(B) 2 only
(c)Both I and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Which one of the following shares in the net proceeds of shareable Central taxes has been recommended for the States by the 12th Finance Commission?
(a)29.00 per cent
(b) 28.50 per cent
(c)30.50 per cent
(d) 31.25 per cent
6. Usual Principal Status unemployment is calculated with reference to which one of the following periods?
(a)One week
(b) One month
(c)One year
(d) Five year
7. Who, among the following, were the pioneers in estimating poverty in India for rural and urban areas separately?
(a) P.K. Bardhan and U.S. Minhas
(B) V.M. Dandekar and N. Rath
(c) M. Ahluwalia and PD. Ojha
(d) E.P.W. DaCosta and N. Rath
8. Disguised unemployment generally exists in:
(a)manufacturing sector
(B)agriculture
(c)small scale industries
(d) urban societies
9. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A rise in per capita income does not automatically imply an increase in economic welfare because
1. distribution of income is not known.
2, rate of growth is not known.
3. it suffers from the limitations of averages.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a)1 only
(b) 2 only
(c)1 and3
(d) l,2and3
10. Which of he following initiatives is/are identified by the 11th Five Year Plan for accelerating the ‘National e-governance programme’?
1. Making digital signatures mandatory for e-commerce, e-government, and e-banking initiatives.
2. Promoting technologies such as wireless fidelity (WiFi) for providing the last mile connectivity to the place where copper wiring is not possible.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a)1 only
(b) 2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. Consider the following statements:
1. Countries with high per capita income do have high physical quality of life index (PQLI).
2. Countries with high PQLI need not necessarily have high per capita income.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b) 2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. Consider the following:
A good index number is one which satisfies
1.Unit test.
2. Time-reversal test.
3. Factor-reversal test.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b) 2 only
(c)2and3
(d)1,2and3
13.The correlation coefficient is independent of
(a)scale only
(b) origin only
(c)both scale and origin
(d) vertex
14.. Which one of the following is referred to as lack of peakedness?
(a)Skewness
(b) Kurtosis
(c)Moments
(d) Mode
15 . The inequality of income can be measured by using:
(a) Mean
(h) Mean Deviation
(c) Standard Deviation
(d) Lorenz Curve
16 . Which one of the following is the value of mode if mean is equal to 12 and median is equal to 14?
(a) 16
(b) 26
(c) 15
(d) 13
17. The weighted average of price relatives, using base values as
weights, is same as the
(a) Laspeyres’ quantity index
(b) Paasche’s price index
(c) Laspeyres’ price index
(d) Kelly’s price index
18. If every item in a set of data is multiplied by a constant, which of
the following measures will remain unchanged?
(a) Arithmetic mean
(b) Geometric mean
(c) Variance
(d) Coefficient of variation
19. Elasticity of substitution in the case of linear-homogeneous production function equals to:
(a)unity
(b) more than unity
(c)less than unity
(d) zero
20. Consider the following statements
The kinked demand curve analysis helps to explain price inflexibility (rigidity) because ft implies that an oligopolist would:
I. gain few additional customers from a price reduction since the firm’s competitors would also reduce price.
2. lose many of its customers if it raised itu prices since rivals would not follow suit.
3. often find that MR = MC at the same output level even after costs had increased.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and2
(c)2and3
(d) 1,2and3
1 b
2 a
3 a
4 a
5 c
6 c
7 b
8 b
9 d
10 c
11 c
12 c
13 c
14 d
15 d
16 a
17 a
18 d
19 a
20 b

exam prep MCQ Economics model Test paper for UGC DSSB RAS UPSC Exams

exam prep MCQ Economics model Test paper for UGC DSSB RAS UPSC Exams
This Economics model test paper/Sample paper is only for those students who have studied Economics in Graduation level / BA Level ,as the questions are bit tough and not intended as general GK questions
testing exam preparation

exam material
macro economics for test prep Like
UGC NET Exam
RAS Exam
DSSB PGT TGT Test
UPSC Exams
PSC Exams of Various Public Service Commissions
1.Keynesian Liquidity Preference theory explains
the:
(a) operation of the money market in an economy.
(I interaction between the real and monetary sectors.
(c) motivation of a speculator.
(d) process of adjustment in money and capital markets for bringing about changes in the interest rate.
Ans: a
Q.2. Which one of the following conditions is assumed by Euler in his adding up theorem?
Elasticity of substitution is:
(a) equalto zero.
(b) greater than zero but less than one.
(c) greater than one.
Ans: b
Q. 3. The cars used by the police department of the government for patrolling should be treated as:
(a) final goods because these are sold by business sector to government.
(b) consumers goods because these are not re- sold by the government.
(c) capital goods because these add to the capital formation in the country.
(d) intermediate goods because police services are consumed through the use of these cars.
Ans: d
Q.4 Which one of the following consumption functions corresponds to the income multiplier, R= 4?
(a) C=24+0.5 Y
(b) C=240+0.25Y
(c) C= 24+ 0.55Y
(d) C = 240 + 0.75Y
Ans: d
5. Given that
GNP at market prices = Rs. l92866 crores
Consumption of fixed capital = Rs. 13371 crqres
Net factor income from abroad = Rs-975 crores
the NDP at market prices will be:
(a)Rs. 178520 crores
(b) Rs. 207212 crores
(c)Rs. 180470 Crores
(d) Rs. 205262 crores
Ans: a
6. In the theory of investment decision the most appropriate Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the one which makes the:
(a) net present value, the maximum.
(b) gross present value, the maximum.
(c) net present value, zero.
(d) gross present value, zero.
Ans: c
Q. 7. In Keynes General Theory, investment and savings are brought to equality primarily through changes in the:
(a) rate of interest.
(b) income velocity of money.
(c) national income
(d). level of prices.
Ans: c
Q. 8 During a recession, consumers typically react to falling incomes by:
(a) increasing the fraction of consumption devoted to durable goods.
(b) reducing the fraction of durables quickly before incomes fall further.
(c) reducing the worn-out durables quickly before incomes goods.
(d) reducing the fraction of non-durables and services more quickly than purchases of durables.
Ans: b
Q. 9. Consider the following statements:
1. Points to the left of the IS curve indicate excess supply of goods.
2. Points to the right of the LM curve indicate excess demand for money.
3. ?oints to the right of the IS curve indicate excess supply of money.
4.. Points to the right of the IS curve indicate excess supply of goods.
Of these statements
(a)2 and 4 are correct
(b)1 and 3 are correct
(c)2 and 3 are correct
(d)1, 2 and 3 are correct
Ans: a
Q.10 . Suppose, MPC falls. The IS curve shifts to the left. Then what happens ceteris paribus?
(a) The level of equilibrium becomes lower
(b) The level of equilibrium becomes higher
(c) There is no change in equilibrium
(d) Only the rate of interest becomes lower
Ans: a
Q 11. The author of employment multiplier is:
(a) Lord Beveridge
(c) R. V Kahn
(b) J. M . Keynes
(d) J.R. Hicks
Ans: c
Q. 12 In a two sector economy, the saving and investment functions are as follows:
S=—10+0.2Y
I= —3+0.1 Y
What will be the equilibrium level of income?
(a) 70
(b) 80
(c) 90
(d) 100
Ans: a
Q. 13 The IS-LM model has been formulated by:
(a) J.R. Hicks
(b) E Modigliani
(c)P.A. Samuelson
(d) J.M. Keynes
Ans: a
Directions
The following item consist of two statements, one labelled the Assertion (A) and the other labelled the Reason (R,). You are to exam inc these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
Select your answer to these using the codes given below
Q. 14. Assertion (A): The level of employment in an economy, according of Keynes, is a function of GNP.
Reason (R): GNP is determined by aggregate demand, which in turn depends upon consumption of the households and investment decisions of business.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true But R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: a
Q. 15. Which one of the following structural changes in the composition of National Income of India would characterize economic development?
(a) A large proportion of income from agriculture relative to other sectors.
(b) A small proportion of income from the tertiary sector compared to that from agriculture.
(c) A larger proportion of income from industry as compared to that from agriculture.
(d) A smaller portion of income from industry as compared to that from the tertiary sector.
Ans: b
Q. 16. Which of the following methods were used by the conventional series in computing National Income in India?
1. Output method.
2. Expenditure method.
3. Income method.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) l and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans: b
Q. 17. Between 1951-52 and 1955-56 and 1985-86 and 1989-90, the share of agriculture in the GDP of India decreased from about 55% to about 33% and that of the tertiary sector increased from nearly 29% to 39%. This indicates that the
(a) productivity of land has been on the decline.
(b) the productivity of labour has been increasing.
(c) secondary sector has done much better than the primary and tertiary sectors.
(d) output of tangible commodities has not been increasing as fast as the GDP.
Ans: d
Q. 18 What is the correct sequence of the following?
1. Marrohkesh Declaration.
2. Smithsonian Agreement.
3. Keynes Plan.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a)1,2,3
(b)2,3,1
(c)3,2,1
(d)3,1,2
Ans: c
Q. 19. The following economists are associated with the “Exploitation Dependency Theory”:
1. Paul Baran
2. A.G. Frank
3. S. Amin ‘
4. G. Palma
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of them?
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2,1,3,4
(c)2,1,4,3
(d) 1,2,4,3
Ans: b
Q 20. According to Hirschman, ‘convergent’ series comprises investment projects the appropriate more external economies then they create and ‘ divergent’ series comprises investment projects that create more external economies than what they appropriate.
In terms of this,investments in power and transport is: .
(a)convergent series.
(b)divergent series.
(c)respectively convergent and divergent series.
(d)both convergent series with diminishing returns.
Ans: b
Q. 21 According to neoclassical theory of distribution, constancy of wage share, in national income would come about only when elasticity of factor substitution:
(a) equals one.
(b) is greater than one.
(c) is less than one
(d) is zero.
Ans: a
Q. 22. The ‘Compensation criterion’ that state X is socially preferable to state Y, if those who gain from X can compensate the losers and still be in a better position than at Y has been proposed by:
(a) Bergson
(b) Pareto
(c) Kaldor
(d) Walras
Ans: c
Q. 23. According to Pigou, National Dividend will be the maximum when:
(a) marginal cost is minimized.
(b) net social marginal productivity is maximized.
(c) net private marginal productivity is maximized.
(d) net social marginal productivity becomes equal to net private marginal productivity.
Ans: d
Q. 24. A consequence of the Kaldor-Hicks compensation principle is that a change in the economic policy leads to an improvement in social welfare if the:
(a) gainers can compensate the losers for their loss and still remain better-off themselves than they were before.
(b) losers can profitably bribe the gainers to induce them to stay in the initial position.
(c) gainers can just compensate the losers out of their gains.
(d) Losers do not oppose the change.
Ans: a
Q. 25. Transfer payments by the government are not included in the net domestic product because:
(a) these are gifts from the government to the recipients.
(b) their opportunity cost is zero.
(c) such payments may not ‘ultimately reach the recipients.
(d) no corresponding production of goods and services has taken place to match the payment of such funds.
Ans: d
Q. 26. Liquidity preference refers to:
(a) the extent to which investors prefer to keep their assets in money.
(b) RB I’s shareholdings in other financial institutions.
(c) community’s preference for gold.
(d) community’s effective demand for capital goods.
Ans: a
Q. 27. Which of the following method(s) are used to
compute national income in India?
1. Net output method.
2. Net income method.
3. Expenditure method.
Select the correct. answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a)2 alone
(b) 1 and 2
(c)3 alone
(d) l,2 and 3
Ans: d
28. Assuming that
Change in investment I= 20
Marginal propensity to save (MPS)= 0.5
Marginal propensity to investment (MP) = 0.
The change in income Y will be equal to:
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 200
Ans: b
Q. 29. Consider the following statements
Intersection of the I—S and L—M Curves corresponds to:
1. equilibrium in the real sector.
2. equilibrium in the monetary sector.
3. liquidity trap necessarily
4. Walrasian general equilibrium.
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1,2,3. and 4 are correct
Ans: b
Q. 30. Consider the following statements
The study of national income accounts is of great importance because it:
1. reveals the changes in the size and composition of the national product.
2. provides us with information about the distribution of national income in the society among various groups.
3. reveals the manner in which national expenditure is divided between consumption and investment. Of these statements
(a)1 and 2 are correct
(b)2 and 3 are correct
(c)1 and 3 are correct
(d) 1,2 and 3 are correct
Ans: d
Q. 31. Consider the following types of income:
1. Personal income.
2. Private income.
3. Disposable income
4. National income
The correct sequence in descending order of their magnitude is:
(a) 4,2,1,3
(b) 4,2,3,1
(c) 2,4,3,1
(d) 2,4,1,3
Ans: a
Q. 32. Disposable personal income is:
(a) the sum of wages, salaries, commissions, bonuses and other forms of employee earnings before deduction of any taxes of social security contributions, net income from royalties and rentals, interest income and profits of a corporation, partnership of proprietorship.
(b) disposable income plus personal taxes; or current personal income receipts after deducting social security contributions but before deduction of personal taxes.
(c) a concept of receipts rather than a concept of earnings and is computed after taxes and social security contributions. One must add receipts that are not payments for current productive purposes and one must deduct all earnings not currently received and all taxes and social security contributions.
(d) the concept of individual’s income as the money value of his earnings from productive services currently rendered by him or by his property after deduction of personal taxes and social security contributions.
Ans: d
Q. 33. Given the total investment expenditure, an increase in the propensity to save will lead to a
(a) fall in the quantity of income.
(b) fall in income.
(c) rise in interest rate.
(d) rise in income.
Ans: d
Q. 34. The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the:
(a) total value of goods and services produced by the nationals
(b) sum of total consumption and investment expenditure.
(c) sum of personal income of all individuals.
(d) money value of final goods and services produced.
Ans: b
Q. 35. Gross National Sayings measure the
(a) amount of GNP not consumed.
(b) excess of income over consumption plus the net taxes.
(c) sum of retained earnings and depreciation amounts:
(d) excess of disposable income over consumption.
Ans: b
Q. 36. Social Accounting system in India is classified into which one of the following sets of sectors?
(a) Enterprise, households and government
(b) Assets, liabilities and debt position
(c) Public sector, private sector and joint sectors
(d) Income, product and expenditure
Ans: c
Q. 37. For a closed economy having no foreign trade which one of the following is correct?
(a) GDP= GNP
(b) GDP > GNP
(c) GDP
(d) GDP < or = GNP
Ans: a

Q. 38. According to the permanent income hypothesis. the
(a) long-run aggregate Average Propensity to Consume (APC) equals the long-run aggregate Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC)
(b) long-run aggregate APC is greater than the long- run aggregate MPC.
(c) long-run aggregate APC is less than the long-run aggregate MPC.
(d) APC of every individual is equal irrespective of different will be encouraged.
Ans: a
Q. 39. If there is an expectation of a rise in the price level, investment will be encouraged because:
(a) there will be an increased production of capital goods
(b) there will be arise in the prospective return from capital.
(c) the people save more and interest rate will fall.
(d) None of these
Ans: b
Q. 40 . Which of the following statements explain the difference between NNP
(Net National Product) and NMP. (Net Material Product)?
1. NNP includes services.
2. NNP excludes services.
3. NMP includes services.
4. NMP excludes services.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Codes
(a) l and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c)l and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: a
Q. 41. According to Keynes, marginal propensity to consume:
(a) can never exceed unity.
(b) may exceed unity when dissaving occurs.
(c) can never exceed the average propensity to consume.
(d) is the reciprocal of the marginal propensity to save.
Ans: c
Q. 42. Super multiplier refers to:
(a) interaction of the mu1t and the accelerator.
(b) reciprocal of the marginal propensity to consume.
(c) capital output ratio
(d) budget multiplier.
Ans: a
Q. 43. In the liquidity preference theory of interest of Keynes nioney acts as a link between the present
and the future in the case of:
(a) transactions demand for money.
(b) precautionary demand for money
(e) business demand for money.
(d) speculative demand for money.
Ans: d
Q. 44 . In 1970-71 the NDP measured at the prices prevailing in that year, amounted to Rs. 34368 Crores. In 1976-77 while this NDP measured at the prices prevailing in that year amounted to Rs. 66561 crores, at 1970-71 prices it amounted to Rs. 40395 crores. The rise in real NDP is
(a) insignificant
(b) Rs. 6027 crores
(c) Rs.31193crores
(d) Rs. 66561 crores
Ans: b
Q. 45. Assertion (A): A rise in the aggregate demand and aggregate supply of goods and services raises national income.
Reason (R) : National income represents the value of aggregate. production in monetary terms.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A;
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: b
Q.46 Excess of ex-ante saving over ex-ante investment means that: -
(a) income will fall.
(b) income will rise.
(c) income will rise and inventories will remain the
same.
(d) price will rise and inventories will accumulate.
Ans: a